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by thaumasiotes
4564 days ago
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Well, consider the ruler function[1], which is continuous on the irrationals and discontinuous on the rationals. The real numbers really are denser than the rationals; that's why something like the ruler function is possible (notably, a conceptual reverse, continuous on the rationals and discontinuous on the irrationals, cannot exist -- the rationals are too far apart). I'm pretty sure this is precisely the phenomenon the quote you extract is referring to: if you were standing, infinitely magnified, at a point on the ruler function, then the function would be continuous ("look like a line") if your point was irrational, but if your point was rational, there would be a measurable gulf separating you from the rest of the function. [1] http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thomae%27s_function |
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Consider that the integral of the ruler function from 0 to 1 is 0 (as is stated in your reference 1). In layman's terms you could express this as "there are infinitely more irrational than rational numbers between 0 and 1". At the same time, "for every two rational numbers there are infinitely many rational numbers in-between them". What sort of "picture" is this compatible with?
I still think that the only picture that really makes any sense is a solid line at any finite magnification, yet empty space at infinite magnification.