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by chromatic
4572 days ago
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Why count on the mapping from boolean to int being false = 0, true = 1? Pretty much everything other language that has such a mapping does false = 0, true != 0. I can't wrap my mind around this complaint. "Why should you count on Perl treating booleans the way Perl treats booleans? Other languages don't treat booleans the way Perl treats booleans, so obviously you shouldn't rely on Perl treating booleans the way Perl treats booleans." It's almost as if there were some democratic notion of boolean semantics where every language you know gets one vote. |
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