Even being 2:1 why would you expect those results being reflected anywhere else? Why would an employer hire from one of the two pools of people where one haves 50% less chance of being good enough for the position?
If an employer just hired people with perfect SAT math scores, you'd expect a 2:1 distribution. If an employer just hired men, because they were twice as likely to have a high SAT math score, then the employer would be retarded because for both genders there is over a 99% chance that any given person will not have a high SAT math score.