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by ggchappell
4614 days ago
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I don't see why the reasoning didn't go like the following. California law requires the property owner to give up rights. The eminent-domain laws require the state to compensate property owners when forcing them to give up rights. Conclusion: The property owner must allow beach access to the public, and the state must pay the property owner for allowing this. EDIT: The comment by gojomo would seem to explain this. |
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I like the idea of working out a 'patch' to the treaty, although I don't think I've heard of that ever happening in practice, new treaties yes, but patching an old one not so much.