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by singlecomment17 4662 days ago
LOL, I'll bite.

The second sentence is a fallacy: it's NOT like a Britisher or American not being able to speak English. It's like a Spaniard not being able to speak Italian. Before unification each part of India was its own political entity.

Also read up on the debates in the constituent assembly. There were heated debates on the topic of Hindi as "national language", "only language" etc.

Also, I am pretty sure you are not aware of this, but the national education/language policy of the 1960s said that Hindi speaking areas will learn a non-Hindi language in school in addition to English. The so-called three-language formula of 1968.

It might be worth reflecting on why the three-language formula is not being adhered to.
1 comments
singlecomment17 4662 days ago
Related: http://www.thehindu.com/features/friday-review/official-lang... "Official language or national language?"

And: http://articles.timesofindia.indiatimes.com/2010-01-25/india... "There's no national language in India: Gujarat High Court"

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