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by jnbiche
4670 days ago
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Yes, you're right. I hesitated when I wrote "last century", since I had vague memories of the neo-classicists who were leading the charge for his/her exclusively, since they believed it more closely reflected pure Latin usage -- which they sought to emulate in English. So it doesn't surprise me that it goes back to the 18th century. Ironically, most of the people I know who now advocate for the gender-neutral third-person singular "they", and from whom I learned its history, have classical training to some degree or another. Thanks for the correction -- I'll have to try and track down that book. |
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http://www.nytimes.com/2009/07/26/magazine/26FOB-onlanguage-...
Also see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ann_Fisher_(grammarian) .
The irony is considerable. Not only was the originator of generic "he" a woman, she was a successful woman entrepreneur when such a thing was unheard of. What's more, her book was known for arguing against the incursion of Latin rules into English grammar—which is what generic "he" was.