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by moocowduckquack 4674 days ago
I was wrong about France actually. It appears that the wording in the French law is narrower than it first appears.

It is a bit confusing as it looks wider until you consider the condition "such as they are defined by Article 6 of the statute of the international tribunal military annexed in the agreement of London of August 8, 1945". That tribunal explicitly was only able to rule on acts carried out by Axis countries, so this law only applies to those acts specifically.