|
|
|
|
|
|
by thomasbk
4707 days ago
|
|
|
No; for that to be the case, equivalence would have to be proven (i.e. construct a proof of Shanuel that works when you assume this theory to be true.) Right now, it could be that there exists a proof that is valid and does not depend on Shanuel's conjecture. |
|
|