[pdpi]

> One thing I'm wondering: if all clinical studies are quantified via efficacy vs. a fixed placebo, shouldn't that make the results comparable? If Drug A is 200% more effective than a placebo, and Drug B is 300% more effective, does that not suggest that Drug B > Drug A?

I'm not sure that works. How do you account for different test conditions?

[shoyer]

Exactly -- the tests may have been done on different populations. In an extreme case, imagine both treatments are randomized trials for an otherwise terminal illness, but Drug A was tested on the elderly and Drug B was tested on youths. When cured, those on Drug B will live longer, if only because they are young.