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by simonh
4719 days ago
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It's not as simple as that. Suppose I run a company based in France employing 100 people and selling goods by mail order. All my operations are in France, so clearly I should pay my taxes in France. The only economic activity that occurs when I sell to someone in the UK is the postage delivery at the UK end. Your proposition is that I should pay UK taxes, but clearly I should definitely pay French taxes. So which do I pay, both? That's not a viable tax regime. Trust me, if there was a simple way to fix this, it would be fixed. |
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In the case of Amazon, when some sales staff is in the UK (evidence coming from whistleblowers, for instance http://www.guardian.co.uk/technology/2013/may/16/amazon-whis...), when warehouses are in the UK, and Luxembourg seems to be used only for signing the official contract, how is that not tax avoidance?