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by whiterabbit2 4731 days ago
It depends on the definition of "talented". If "me myself and everybody like me" then it's very logical.
1 comments

If you need someone with qualification X, and n%, n != 50, of students attending university to earn qualification X are of gender A, yet you try to employ genders A and B equally, you will get fewer good people with qualification X than if you employed n% people of gender A and (100-n)% people of gender B.

Since there are very, very few subjects attended equally by both genders, employing equally will get you worse people.

Note that the above actually assumes that people from both genders are in general equally capable/intelligent. If you add, for example, a higher standard deviation of the IQ for gender C, you will get even more skewed results.