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by thales1940 6840 days ago
I take your point and suggest you go back and explain 'the Greek miracle' as everything after Pythagoras is a distortion.
2 comments

There is no science before Thales, 600BC. There is general agreement that Thales is first to deduce certainties, implicitly building on inductions. So, the key to explaining the Greek miracle is an inspection of what we know about Thales. Pythagoras reversed Thales in that he took the integration of induction and deduction and when applied to numbers reified them making them subjective. The history of mathematics argued over the source of a numbers certainty (cardinality) for 2350 years which mostly consisted of arguments to explain the relation between god and cardinality. God is a bogus concept, it has no existential content. Kant refusing to accept the obvious devloped an argument that took the god/cardinal problem and made it impossible to integrate them in the hope of saving the god part from reasoned inspection. From Kant developes a new aecular, subjective view of cardinality. Excepting Ayn Rand, no one has ever gone back to Pythagoras to correct his mystic error.
My position is large in that it questions Pythagoras and so, everything that follows him. All phillosophy today is still Pythagorean in that it implies agreement with his subjective stance. The Greek miracle is in fact the discovery of objectivity (reasoned argument) based on the integration of ordinal and cardinal numbers, or concretes and abstractions, which is the same thing. Pythagoras confused numbers which are abstractions with their concrete instances. This has the effect of reversing the Thalean integration and re-establishes the mind/body dichotomy as the norm, making objectivity impossible.