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by jbattle 4749 days ago
For what it's worth, I think the principle of journalists being unbiased dates from the latter half of the 19th century. I may be wrong, but my understanding was that the press was explicitly and formally partisan up until that time. Here's the only support I can find for that after a few minutes searching ...

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Objectivity_%28journalism%29#Hi...

2 comments

A cynical view would be that a public devotion to Objectivity is the perfect vessel for concealing an ideological agenda. (Look how proudly Fox News wears its "Fair & Balanced" slogan.)

But I think there have always been a select few responsible journalists of conscience, who have had to weather different obstacles in trying to be heard amongst the throng of schills and entertainers. The golden age of journalism from the 40s to 70s is (a) probably not as golden as remembered, and (b) probably the anomaly rather than the norm.

All I can say is, thank the gods for the web. While it can also be used for evil, at least it makes it hard to shut people up.

My guess is that the idea of objectivity started around the 1890's, when people like Pulitzer and Hearst realized they could sell cheap newspapers funded by advertising and do without the support of the local political machines. But I don't have any support for that idea.