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by coldtea
4805 days ago
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>I'm not sure what kind of fallacy it would be that I make decisions based on my rationally derived probability estimates. If there is such a fallacy I would love to hear about it. The fallacy that those are "rationally derived probability estimates" instead of numbers pulled out of one's arse in the first place. What gave you the impression that putting random intuition numbers on the P(paid)/P(free) boxes makes it "rationally derived"? If you didn't do that, what's your methodology, and where are the source numbers of your empirical research one the matter? |
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Are you talking about intuition numbers, or random numbers? They are fundamentally different things.
Empirical research is not the only kind of rational evidence. See http://wiki.lesswrong.com/wiki/Evidence