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by ezequiel-garzon 4821 days ago
It's amusing, although I'm lost with their proposal of "transparency" over "opacity", since they are opposites and, as far as I know, used on both sides of the Atlantic. Also obtaining the transparency would require applying the transformation x -> 1-x to the opacity.

I feel I'm missing something with this example.

1 comments

As a Brit I concur with you good sir. We use both words (transparency and opacity) this side of the Atlantic.

And as you say, "transparency: 0.2;" would equal "opacity: 0.8;"