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by awakeasleep
4842 days ago
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This sure seems like it would be a violation of a person's right to be secure from seizure of property in the USA. Does anyone with a legal background have any insight they want to share? I am having trouble wrapping my brain around the idea that money I have in the bank could be seized to pay for someone else's fuckup. I know inflation can sort of do that on a society-wide scale, but seizure of post-tax income from a private bank account? That's mind-boggling. |
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The US government made a 50%+ profit by forcing people to sell their gold in 1933:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Executive_Order_6102#Effect_of_...
>Executive Order 6102 required all persons to deliver [gold] owned by them to the Federal Reserve, in exchange for $20.67 ... The price of gold from the Treasury for international transactions was thereafter raised to $35 ... resulting in an immediate loss for everyone who had been forced to surrender their gold ... The resulting profit that the government realized funded the Exchange Stabilization Fund