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by jules
4867 days ago
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While lying requires intent, it does not require knowledge that the statement is false. If I say "lutusp killed JFK" then that is a lie, even though I do not know that it is false. It is a lie exactly because I do not know it to be true. Something can be a lie if it is true! Suppose the FA said "he took more pictures" without having seen him taking more pictures, with the intent to deceive the captain to get this guy off the plane. That is a lie even if he did take more pictures, because the FA does not know it to be true. |
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Yes, it requires both -- both knowledge that the statement is false, and an intent to deceive.
Source: http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/lie
Quote: "Lie : noun : 1 : a : an assertion of something known or believed by the speaker to be untrue with intent to deceive"
Source: http://www.merriam-webster.com/thesaurus/lie[noun]
Quote: "Lie : noun : a statement known by its maker to be untrue and made in order to deceive <he wanted to deny the accusation, but he couldn't tell a lie>"
Source: http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/lie
Quote: "a false statement made with deliberate intent to deceive; an intentional untruth; a falsehood."
Here's how this works. If you have an idea about how a word is defined that conflicts with another's claim, before objecting, look up the word.
EDIT: also, think for a minute about your claim:
> While lying requires intent, it does not require knowledge that the statement is false.
How can a person be said to have an intent to deceive if he isn't aware that his remark is false? How does he form an intent to deceive using a statement he believes to be true?