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by tptacek
4881 days ago
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He didn't just plant the seeds! He used the entire Roundup-Ready system. Monsanto didn't go after him for accidentally ending up with seeds from their lineage. If he had planted "some other seeds" and then sprayed them with glyphosphates, he'd have ruined his crop. If he had planted Roundup-Ready seeds and not used Roundup, Monsanto probably wouldn't have cared. I've read a bunch of filings for different Roundup cases, and in every one of the ones I've found, it's alleged that the farmers in question not only planted Roundup-Ready seeds, but also used Roundup instead of conventional herbicides. |
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Yes, I know that. I was just trying to make you see that in the eye of the law that would not matter. The seeds are the problem, not the whole process, it all revolves around the seeds.
> If he had planted "some other seeds" and then sprayed them with glyphosphates, he'd have ruined his crop.
Indeed.
> If he had planted Roundup-Ready seeds and not used Roundup, Monsanto probably wouldn't have cared.
Who knows, but it isn't material whether Monsanto 'cares' or doesn't. After all they're claiming IP rights in the seeds, that's the only thing that matters and they could do so in either case. Of course they would be much less likely to bring suit in that case because it would somewhat reduce their chance of winning wouldn't you say?
> I've read a bunch of filings for different Roundup cases, and in every one of the ones I've found, it's alleged that the farmers in question not only planted Roundup-Ready seeds, but also used Roundup instead of conventional herbicides.
Indeed. And so we are left with a very simple case abstract:
Should a farmer be able to grow any seed that he/she buys on the open market?
I believe the answer to that question is 'yes'.