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by tptacek
4878 days ago
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You're right. I should have said "the concept of reasonableness" instead of "the word reasonable". Either way: unless you think James Madison was incompetent, the subjective word "unreasonable" appears in the amendment alongside the objective word "warrant" entirely in order to give the courts leeway to make case-by-case decisions about authorizing searches. The word "unreasonable" was no clearer in the 1780s than it is now. There are times on HN when I am probably on very shaky ground arguing about con law concepts, but this is not one of them. Every modern Supreme court from Lochner through New Deal through Warren through Rehnquist has validated the idea that the 4th Amendment does not include a rigid requirement for every search to be accompanied by a warrant. (Before reading Ely's _Democracy and Distrust_ this week, which, fantastic book, I'd have said "every Supreme Court ever", but now I'm not so sure since Ely cites a floor speech supporting the 14th Amendment that implies the 4th Amendment was interpreted differently in the mid-1800s.) |
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This looks like it agrees with my point: the warrant process is the objective mechanism by which the subjective reasonable/unreasonable decision is carried out. This says nothing about the permissibility of searches where the warrant process is skipped.
Of course, one can choose to assume there exists some unwritten permission for searches other than via the warrant process, but then we're no longer discussing the rule of law.