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by rmc 4884 days ago
It is nearly always the case that the country the servers are in, and the country the owners (persons/companies) are in is the relevant law.

Imagine a dutch company with servers in the netherlands, witha .com address. Why would they be exempt from dutch law?
1 comments
pc86 4884 days ago
Why would a Dutch company operating a .com on a US server, or an American company operating a .com (or .nl for that matter) on a Dutch server not be exempt?

I'm not arguing either way, and truthfully I'm not sure how I feel about it, but it gets hard to determine jurisdiction when you're talking about an entity (owner + domain + site files/server) being split across multiple jurisdictions.

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rmc 4883 days ago
Your server don't have to be in the US to operate a .com (or in netherlands to operate a .nl).

Sometimes laws can be written as "a person/company shall not cause personal data to be stored without users consent" (say). So if you, in the Netherlands, programme your server in the US to store personal data without consent, then you might be breaking the law. (Since you have caused a computer to do that.)

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