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by anigbrowl
4896 days ago
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Eh, those historical claims about disarmament prior to massacre are very poorly founded in fact. Here is but one example debunking: http://www.straightdope.com/columns/read/1791/did-hitler-ban... Mass death in the 20th century is much more the outcome of the industrial revolution (in the west) and the catastrophic failure of collective agriculture (in Asia). There were no systematic campaigns of public disarmament. The comparisons to Nazi Germany are overblown, often reflect a complete misunderstanding of history (eg the belief that Hitler was left wing), and generally ignore context such as a long history of popular anti-semitism dating back centuries, if not millenia. |
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A lot of "Good Germans" were allowed to keep arms (I think this has to do with Hitler's outward focus vs.the more inward of the Soviet Union; Hitler thought Germany was in an 11th hour situation so he was a lot more merely authoritarian that one might think); no one's claiming a general disarmament of the nation, just of the Jews, and of course other untermenschen).
I and we know there was a "systematic campaigns of public disarmament" in the USSR; as I recall, by modern times unlicensed possession of a single round of handgun ammo was technically punishable by death. In China it was part of the revolution, look up rifle taxes. That more people were killed by inept collective agriculture has absolutely no bearing on those who were killed by more direct means (in fact, a lot of "Kulacks" or "landlords" to clear the way for it).
When your sources don't support what you say they do, and you're rebutting claims I didn't make, it's hard to believe you're arguing in good faith; I don't expect to be making many future replies to you.