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by jval
4931 days ago
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Sale of goods refers to goods, which do not include intellectual property. The first sale doctrine refers to resale of goods which contain copies of intellectual property (such as books and DVDs), and refers only to the transfer of the limited licence embodied inside the good. It allows you to resell the DVD with licence attached, but doesn't allow you to copy the DVD at all. It doesn't grant you any additional rights that you didn't already have at the point of sale. Please try not to be so aggressive when you don't know what you're talking about. |
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There is no "limited license" embodied in the good. You buy the physical item and the whole physical item, in all its aspects. Courts have repeatedly rejected the notion that additional terms can be applied after the sale (and if I'm not mistaken, this is part of the first sale doctrine).
Monopolies such as the copyright monopoly are indeed not included in the over-the-counter purchase, nor did I claim they were. I am, however, stating that they limit the property rights to the good you have legally acquired.
I apologize for coming across as aggressive, but I can get frustrated when people are not clear on the concept of property and what you buy over-the-counter as defined by law (as opposed to what other limitations may apply to the property you have legally acquired), and assert things that are plainly false and misleading.
Cheers, Rick