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by pretoriusB
4924 days ago
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>Here's why: because there are really high odds that of all the people across the world that watched the movie in both formats, at least one person would experience this. What a BS explanation of what the author describes. This "law of big numbers" non-explanation could be used to dismiss tons of relevant and non random events. >Oh boy. The author seems unaware that all or nearly all modern theory about suspension of disbelief places most of the responsibility on the viewer, not the artist. I seriously doubt this explanation, since the audience is more or less the same for every major movie. Yet some resonate with the majority of people and others do not. Any references to this "modern theory"? |
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