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by rtkwe 4929 days ago
Instead try to write a program which proves that the limit sin(1/x) x->0 does not exist. (Remember proving that a single function doesn't work isn't enough. You have to prove no such function exists.)
2 comments

I think it may be possible to phrase a claim for this.

for any almostZero, it is possible to find an integer m1, so that the m1.2.pi + pi/2 is greater than 1/almostZero and therefore for which sin(m1.2.pi+pi/2) =1; 1/(m1.2.pi + pi/2) will be smaller than 1/almostZero. It is also possible to find an integer m2, so that m2.pi+pi is greater than 1/almostZero and therefore for which sin(m2.pi+pi) =0; 1/(m2.pi+pi) will be smaller than 1/almostZero. The claim: find me an almostZero for it is not possible to find such m1,m2.

This could be a possibility, but I haven't written the program yet ;-)

I suspect that such program could revolve around showing that for any arbitrarily small number -- almostZero -- you can always find two smaller numbers x1,x2 as such that sin(1/x1) is smaller and sin(1/x2) is larger than sin(1/almostZero). The Popper-compliant claim could be: find me an almostZero for which the defeating function will be incapable of producing such x1 and x2. I am not sure about all of this, though. Unless you have investigated something very similar before, it takes time to investigate things like that.