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by benbataille
4922 days ago
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It certainly is illegal in France.
Refusing to sell without a valid reason is an exception to contract liberty since the sixties (article L. 122-1 du code de la consommation). The former situation was seen as biased in favor of the sellers. Whether alleged violation of the user term is a valid reason is open to questions. Without going to court, I strongly doubt it is. |
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