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by suddenlybananas 2 days ago
The digamma was never used in Homer's written form, but the poetic metre in some place is done such that there would be a digamma there and in some places, they don't modify the metre to adapt to the digamma.
1 comments

There's a two-hundred year gap been it bring composed to capturing it in written form. It was in oral form and didn't written down (outside of some short fragements) for the ~200 year.

When the The Odyssey was composed, widespread use of digamma sound was still a big thing.

I can easily believe that anachronistic language was added in the process of writing them down, but the original audience wasn't people reading in a book; it was people who were listening to a poem that had never been written down.

There is a huge amount of anacronistic content, but when it was first performed, language was relatively contemporary at the start.