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by ieatcandlewax
20 hours ago
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> The politics of it started half a century ago, and the politicizing of abortion was very much intentional: It might have re-emerged as abortion became more in vogue in the early 20th century, but the politics of it have existed since ancient rome. https://imperiumromanum.pl/en/article/infanticide-in-ancient... The rest of your argument is a strawman, you're imagining someone who disagrees with you and giving them weird arguments. |
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Please note that I'm not trying to troll (the bit about God doing abortions may seem like it but that point stands on its own: if an abortion is the cessation of the development of a fetus or proto-human, then a miscarriage is effectively an "abortion"). The question becomes "why did that happen". This is an important question to ask because women are being imprisoned for miscarriages and the "passionate pursuit of the matter" does not always lead to justice.
As for any strawmen from me, my conflation of Catholic teaching and the Quiverfull movement -- I'll own that outright as being lazy on my part.
Politics can be construed in different ways. Yes, there have been laws and movements, but not under the banner of any US political party. I'm talking about as a partisan platform issue. I remember, I was there. It's very well documented and there's an even less palatable facet to that movement as it has been documented that it was intended to succeed segregation as a politically activating issue.
Now back to your points:
Conflating infanticide with "abortion" is an Equivocation — using a single term or concept across two things that differ in a morally or legally. Also known as a false equivalence. It also begs the question, since the equivalence between fetus and infant is precisely what's in dispute.
I'm engaging here in self-defense, because there are parties actively trying to make this country a theocracy and I think thats a very bad idea.