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by tacomonstrous
9 days ago
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This is nonsensical: Properness of the map is equivalent to its being an isomorphism (quick proof: Jacobian invertible implies that the map is etale, and properness would imply that it is finite etale, but affine space doesn't admit non-trivial finite etale covers), so the lack of properness is just another way of verifying that this is indeed a counterexample. |
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