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by tskj
13 days ago
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Idk the obvious answer seems to be that buying now vs buying later isn't the same? Seems like a preposterous assumption; or rather an assumption that obviously never holds for any market ever so this theory is unfalsifiable by empirical data (and also irrelevant to the real world). |
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The full set of constraints (monopoly, durability, constant MC, timelessness) can hardly ever be fulfilled. So it is not falsifiable by empirical data.
But nobody has questioned the logic conjecture itself here, even the article doesn't try. It seems pretty plausible, doesn't it?