Hacker News new | ask | show | jobs
by rayiner 14 days ago
No, I meant in Pakistan. Wasn’t it still technically ruled by Britain at that point? Until the 1956 constitution?
1 comments

No, it was an independent country which shared the same monarch - rather like Canada and Australia still are.
It was a Dominion, but again who was denying your relatives the franchise?
My understanding is that Pakistan got what we would understand to be real elections in 1970: https://mygoldenbengal.wordpress.com/2014/11/26/pakistan-vot.... In 1950, the National Assembly was elected not by the people, but instead by provincial representatives elected during British rule.
Your link mentions provincial elections in 1954 (excluding the ones during the 60s dictatorship)