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by toast0
27 days ago
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> Why didn’t the DMARC spec say that a domain is “not present” if it lacks MX records? That doesn't match the SMTP spec, RFC 5321 says > If an empty list of MXs is returned, the address is treated as if it was associated with an implicit MX RR, with a preference of 0, pointing to that host. https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc5321.html#section-5 |
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Now, steelman argument is that DMARC is used together with SMTP, so it should be somewhat compatible to work in practice. But in this case there isn't fundamental conflict breaking SMTP.