[dragonwriter]

> Charging people a price relative to the cost of a service is not discrimination.

Yes, it is discrimination. Treating people differently on any basis is discrimination on that basis.

It may or may not be illegal discrimination depending on the specifics and the governing law, and it may or may not be unjust discrimination depending on the specifics and the applicable moral framework, but all discrimination means is differential treatment on some criteria.

[charcircuit]

I disagree. It is not discrimination between 2 people to charge one $200 for a 2 hour private lesson and the other $100 for a 1 hour private lesson. Even though the name of the service is the same the precise service being provided to each person is not the same

[dragonwriter]

> I disagree. It is not discrimination between 2 people to charge one $200 for a 2 hour private lesson and the other $100 for a 1 hour private lesson.

Sure it is discrimination on the basis of duration sought, not discrimination on the basis of personal characteristics, and while it is discrimination, its fair to characterize it as bot discrimination between people, since different people making the same choice would be charged the same. Its obviously, in any case, not discrimination anyone would object to, but objectionability is a matter of the basis of discrimination, not the fact of discrimination.

[charcircuit]

We are using different definitions of discrimination so this conversation is pointless.

[eru]

I get your argument, but I suspect it's far too general.

For example, even if you charge people the same _per_ letter, if you just look at eg subsidy per user, it's gonna be widely divergent.