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by fn-mote 3 hours ago
That statement trivializes the whole situation.

Short answer: no.

The government just gave money to every executive in the company, and your argument is that because the company stock is also held by pension funds, they were supporting pension funds? Makes little sense.

Just giving the money straight to the pension funds would be much more efficient. This method enriches a bunch of non-contributors along the way.

1 comments

Why do you say it was given to executives in the company? The shareholders (which in the case of e.g. Ford, appear to be only 0.3% executives of the company) are the owners of the company. An extra dollar of income to the company does not become accessible to the executives as personal income without being allocated as such by the shareholders.

If you're claiming otherwise, it would be fascinating to see the evidence.