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I continue to have difficulty understanding the gnashing of teeth around various "tax minimization" strategies, e.g. being "immoral" and all that. Setting aside those companies that deal in 'hard goods' (e.g. Amazon-the-store, Starbucks, etc), could someone explain the rationale of taxation w.r.t. corporate domicile? Say I offer a software-based service in the U.S. (i.e. all the servers, billing, admin, dev, etc are done there), and by dint of luck/happenstance, a majority of the userbase ends up being in the EU. I (or my ISP) or my customers (or their ISP) are paying for the pipe between us (which is presumably taxed however the relevant localities have chosen); beyond that, I am not benefiting from any government services in the EU. Should I nevertheless pay taxes in the EU (perhaps proportionately to each member nation based on the mix of nationalities of my userbase)? When I set up a European office, shall I be shamed into setting up HQ in whatever country houses the majority of my customers that year? What happens when that mix changes such that the majority of my customers are in a different nation? All of this sounds absurd, but it sounds like the standard (or something similar to it) being applied to Dropbox in this case. |
Let me put it another way, you say that:
>beyond that, I am not benefiting from any government services in the EU.
but you are benefiting from the government. Without a stable and moderately successful government, your customers wouldn't be in a position to be able to pay for your services. And that's exactly why most of your customers could, conceivably, come from the EU, but are unlikely to come from a developing country.
I'm not saying I agree with this; I don't know enough about how this sort of taxation affects the system as a whole, but I believe that's the logic.