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by groundzeros2015 44 days ago
Who agreed to those terms?
2 comments

The buyers or sellers. No one is required to use a realtor. They simply provide a convenient service for a fee.
Tell me you have never bought a house in the US without telling me you have never bought a house in the US.
I've bought several houses in the U.S., and the last one I sold, I didn't have a realtor. I'm not sure what point you're making here.
That you have bought several houses in the USA makes your experience represent 0.01% of homeowners. Most people in the USA only buy one.
That's an odd accusation to make with confidence.
This lawsuit is about realtors acting against your interest (agency problem), and is not about you being forced to pay a particular commission.

You can choose your realtor. You can discuss with them.

This person just bought a 2m house!

> not about you being forced to pay a particular commission

It's literally in the first paragraph of the article.

"At trial, a federal jury found that they violated antitrust law by conspiring to force home sellers to pay inflated commissions to real estate agents."

The force applies to "inflated," e.g. they agreed to pay a fee but were forced to pay an inflated fee. Not they were forced to pay any fee at all.
I don't understand the point of this clarification.
There is a difference between "forced to pay a fee" and "forced to pay an inflated fee." The GP said it's not about being forced to pay a particular commission, which is the first one, which is accurate.