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by pjc50
3 days ago
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> Yet productivity growth as conventionally measured has in fact been much faster in the US than in Europe. How can this be consistent with the fact that there has been virtually no change in the relative value of goods produced per hour? That’s the apparent US-Europe paradox. What explains it is the fact that the US and European economies produce different mixes of goods – a qualifier that is not picked up in the conventional measures of productivity. And that difference in mixes of goods affects the prices at which productivity measures should be calculated in order to make a meaningful comparison across countries One of the most important things to recognize is that the vernacular meaning of "productivity", which would be something to do with how hard people work and how many widgets they turn out, is not the same as the technical economic term "productivity", which is roughly GDP divided by hours worked. This causes a lot of discourse with people talking past each other. The examples relate to tech companies. If you think about, say, Youtube, that (a) contributes a lot to US GDP and (b) doesn't cost European consumers all that much. Indeed, a lot of stuff produced by Silicon Valley is ""free"" (ad-supported or free tier) at the point of use. This is before we get into complicated cases like international attribution of revenue, such as Apple Ireland. |
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Multinationals really confuse comparisons - when I bought a macbook here in Europe it got shipped to me directly from china. My money went to apple Switzerland. At no time in the process was the USA involved.