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by halJordan 4 days ago
You can't present these two passages as if they're the same voice. It's two different authors so the point that there exists multiple points in the Bible is a non-sequitur. It is very clear that the Ezekiel quote is aspirational because we do know a) what the levant was like then & b) what Jewish law already said and c) what Ezekiel is saying. The fact that you personally don't know invalidates nothing, and that fact that you tried to present b) as if it's a 1:1 cancellation is just insane when Ezekiel already knows and is responding to those words.
1 comments

Again I repeat that I did not share anything about voice, invalidations, my personal knowledge/actions (which you've deemed insanity), or cancellation... I am only feebly attempting to ensure that references to this topic from the Bible are considered alongside references in the Bible to a similar topic from another perspective.

I appreciate your filling in additional justification for the OP's initial intro. Thanks for sharing your understanding of the passages though there may be a slim chance your understanding of me is a bit lacking while you've chosen to disregard the HN guidelines.