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by morpheos137 6 days ago
'This is false,' that is an assertion not a proof, and the assertion rests on some kind of asbolutizing fallacy where if x =! y then y =! y(x). I agree cognitive states do not require language. However to say language does not model cognitive states is absurd, from where else would language derive meaning? No I am not saying it models the specific mechanics of neurons. Rather I am saying language maps to the abstract meaning of cognitive states. So the word red absolutely does correspond to some class of brain states common to red. What else could possibly allow cognition to interface with the physical world. Note 'models,' does not need to mean 'injectively, transitively' corresponds. the fact language does not cover all cognitive states in full in no way invalidates language as a model of cognitive state, in the same way a map is a model of territory without being the territory.