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by ibejoeb
20 days ago
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>any trades after a market has concluded but before it is officially resolved should be voided Is that not how it is? I'm not really following the thread. So is polymarket paying out on the initial position, i.e., the one taken before the window closed, and not on the position after it was a foregone conclusion? Or was the whole position reversed? -- OK, on rereading, it seems like the polymarket stance is that the confirmation was not available by the deadline. Fine. But the whole "resolved to no" doesn't make sense. Leaving aside the after-the-fact bet, this is just a terrible structure. The whole thing should unwound and everyone who participated should be reverted. |
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