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by measurablefunc
38 days ago
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> if f and g are algebraically equivalent programs then FPSan(f) and FPSan(g) produce identical results when given identical inputs Ok, but we want the other direction. If FPSan(f) & FPSan(g) produce identical results for identical inputs then we want to conclude that f & g are also equivalent. If g is an "optimized" version of f then this would allow checking equivalence but that's not what they are proving or maybe they are but it looks like the converse is contingent on an unproven conjecture. |
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