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by rprasad
4971 days ago
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Putting vesting on an founder’s ownership means that the company has the right to repurchase part or all of a founder’s ownership should a founder choose to leave prior to a certain date. No, it doesn't. Unvested stock does not belong to the putative shareholder, hence the company doesn't need to do anything to "repurchase" unvested stock. Essentially, unvested stock is stock "promised" to an employee/investor if they satisfy certain conditions. However, until such stock vests, it does not actually belong to the employee/investor (legally or otherwise). Normally, vesting conditions are simply length of employment (i.e., still be employed by the company X months from now). If the vesting conditions are met, the promised stock automatically "vests" and becomes the stock of the employee/investor. A right of first refusal regarding the departing founder's vested stock is a very different legal provision which is also a good idea. A right of first refusal grants the company the first right to purchase the founder's shares before he attempts to sell them to a third party. |
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