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by staticassertion
112 days ago
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I think you just aren't understanding what it means to be "brute". It does not mean "caused externally", it means "the end of the explanatory chain has been reached". If you want to say that the explanatory chain has no end, great, go for it, you now have a regress problem. There is no "choice", there is determination, there is no explanation. If you're still framing things there, then you're just denying brute facts, but you're not about to prove that brute facts aren't possible in a HN thread and you're getting the concepts of necessity, brute, and contingent mixed up along the way. |
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Here I distinguish between "explanation" and "determination". Hoping that helps.
My understanding of brute facts, is they are free values in theory, but measured values in practice. And somehow we just accept experimental measurements of some things as the end of explanation.
I am arguing against the validity of less than full determination, and pointing out that does not imply endless chains of determination.
But our explanations may forever be more limited than reality, for any. number of reasons, but not because reality doesn't fully determine everything. I can see a practical acceptance of values without full explanation, if we have reason to believe we cannot probe further.
Maybe that is a level of agreement?
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As for complete determination, without any need for infinite regress:
Unique self-consistencies are co-constraints that can fully determine things without infinite regress. There is a unique determination loop, not an endless spiral. Uniqueness avoids the inadequacies of non-unique circular reasoning. And reality itself must have this property. The only possible explanation (from our point of view) or determiner (as it actually exists), of its own properties, is itself. As a unique self-consistent form it can do that. Constrained by self-consistency and self-containment.
I am very much trying to understand the line we disagree on, interpret differently, or not.