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by gcanyon
117 days ago
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But the crime in the human instance is the reproduction, not the storage. So the crime in the AI circumstance would not be in the training, but in prompting the output. And of course AIs are excellent at taking direction, so: If I prompt it with "Harry Potter, but Voldemort wins: dark, and Hermione is a sex slave to Draco Malfoy" and get "Manacled," that's copyright infringement, and on me, not on the LLM/training. If I prompt it with "Harry Potter, but Voldemort wins: dark, and Hermione is a sex slave to Draco Malfoy, and change enough to avoid infringing copyright," and get "Alchemised," then that should be fine. I doubt the legal world agrees with me though. |
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I wouldn't be so sure, at least under US law. 17 USC 101 defines a "copy" as:
If I memorize a work what ends up in my brain is not a copy according to that definition because with current technology there is no machine or device which can be used to perceive, reproduce, or otherwise communicate it. The work can only be perceived, reproduced, or otherwise communicated by using my brain which is not a machine or device.No copy in my brain means that memorizing the work cannot infringe the copyright owner's exclusive right to reproduce the work in copies.
An LLM, unlike my brain, is a machine or device which can be used to perceive, reproduce, or otherwise communicate the work and so the work stored in the LLM is a copy.
Training an LLM then, unlike a brain memorizing a work, makes a copy and so would be covered by the copyright owner's exclusive right to make copies.
That's going to need to be justified, probably by arguing fair use.