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by pdonis
135 days ago
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> general principles of accounting. I'm not sure what those have to do with this question, since it's a legal question, not an accounting question. > I feel pretty confident that if a state tax authority agrees with the deed date being the transfer date, then the IRS would as well. In many cases a state tax authority wouldn't even be involved, since many states don't tax capital gains (which is what would be involved with a home sale) while the US Federal government does. > negative sentiment about government bureaucracy Evidently your experiences with government bureaucracies have been very, very different from mine. |
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I mentioned my experience with a state tax authority because it is direct personal experience about this very topic. I don't know why you turned that into being about the IRS, and are now even seemingly rejecting the state tax authority "being involved". The date of the transfer was directly relevant to my disagreement with the state tax authority, and they didn't question that date being the deed date even though the recording happened some time later. Either believe me or not, I don't care.
> Evidently your experiences with government bureaucracies have been very, very different from mine.
Sure? I'm not saying they were a some pleasant, responsive, quick, and casual experience - rather much less bad than I was expecting. And dealing with some corporate bureaucracies has been much worse, with constant transferring and calling back every week to check on status and make sure a ticket didn't get stuck and timeout, etc.