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by alephnerd 142 days ago
> This rule didn't hold in Israel [...]

It did (ie. Revolutionary thresholds) until 10/7 and Hezbollah's shelling of the north changed the calculus.

There was increased pressure from senior IDF careerists, industry titans, and intelligence alums (oftentimes the 3 were the same) against the government's judicial reforms which was about to reach the tip over point (eg. threats of capital outflows, leaking dirty laundry, corporate shutdowns/wildcat strikes, and resignations of extremely senior careerists), but then 10/7 happened along with the mass evacuation of the North, which led everyone to set aside their differences.

Israel is a small country (same population and size as the Bay Area) so everyone either knows someone or was personally affected by the southern massacre or the northern evacuation.

1 comments

More to the point, despite your downvoters, the judicial reform did not pass as proposed.
> despite your downvoters

It's because I called 10/7 a massacre, which it was.

> the judicial reform did not pass as proposed.

Yep. Exactly.

Was operation cast lead a massacre?
Why do you feel this need to rationalize an equivalence?
I don't quite know what you mean by that phrase. The conversation was about what constitutes a massacre, and I was trying to get a calibrating sense. Surely we both agree that 70-100k dead civilians disproportionately targeting children and medical workers/facilities would be at least one massacre, maybe several dozen.