|
|
|
|
|
by afiori
167 days ago
|
|
There are more infinite sequences than finite ones. So not all infinite sequences can be uniquely specified by a finite description. Like √2 is a finite description, so is the definition of π, but since there is no way to map the abstract set of "finite description" surjectively to the set of infinite sequences you find that any one approach will leave holes. |
|