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by computator
165 days ago
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> if your ISP-side modem directly outputs digital audio, the downstream channel capacity is significantly higher But why is it higher? It's still an analog channel (the last mile from the ISP to your house), right? Doesn't it get filtered? So isn't it still subject to the Shannon-Nyquist limit? Here's an ASCII drawing of which parts are digital vs analog as I understood your explanation: Rest of world<--- digital--->Telco<---digital--->ISPmodem<---analog--->HomeModem
Suppose you're saying that the link between the ISPmodem and the HomeModem is a bare unfiltered copper wire. In that case, I have a different question: Couldn't you send data at megabits per seconds over a mile long copper wire without using modems at all (using just UARTs?).I hope you can clear up my confusion. |
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Yes, but you need the bare copper wire without signaling. We operated a local ISP in the 90's and did exactly that by ordering so-called "alarm circuits" from the telco (with no dial tone) and placed a copper T1 CSU on each end. We marketed it as "metro T1" and undercut traditional T1 pricing by a huge margin with great success to the surrounding downtown area.