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rnhmjoj
168 days ago
No, because x/y is just an arbitrary operation between x and y. Here you're assuming that 1/x is the inverse of x under *, but it's not.
1 comments
orbifold
168 days ago
I mean in a normal math curriculum you would define only the multiplicative inverse and then there is a separate way to define fraction, if you start out with certain rings. It is kind of surprising to me that they did a lazy definition of division.
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