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by oakesm9
190 days ago
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Such an easily debunkable line with even the tiniest bit of critical thinking. You’re basically saying the drug companies subsidise a loss in Europe by over charging Americans, right? As the drug company is a private and doesn’t have to sell everywhere, why wouldn’t they just skip the loss making Europeans and just sell to Americans? They’d make more profit that way! That must mean they make some profit from the European prices, otherwise they wouldn’t be bothering. |
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The price of drugs that make it to market needs to not only cover the cost to produce the drug, but also the cost of R&D and the cost of R&D of all the drugs that fail to get to market.
Now this gets complicated when a company sells in different markets with actors that have different negotiating power. It makes sense to sell in any market where the company can get a profit per unit sold without including R&D. But if none of the markets allow enough profit to cover R&D, then it's not really worth developing any new drugs at all anymore.
That's why people say that the US is basically subsidizing drug development. It's not that it's not profitable to sell in the rest of the world, it's just that margins are much lower which allows for a lot less risk-taking on R&D.