|
|
|
|
|
by dilippkumar
197 days ago
|
|
Thanks for the pointer. I went down the rabbithole, and as far as I can tell, you have to axiomatically assume infinities are real in order to prove Goodstein’s theorem. I challenge the existence of ordinal numbers in the first place. I’m calling into question the axioms that conjure up these ordinal numbers out of (what I consider sketchy) logic. But it was a really fun rabbithole to get into, and I do appreciate the elegance of the Goodstein’s theorem proof. It was a little mind bending. |
|